Why are minds personal and different from each other? - Francis Answers - 87

Dear Francis, In Answer #74, you said, “Rhonda’s personal mind is therefore an illusion projected onto the reality, consciousness, Godhead, through the creation of specific mentations that we could call”Rhonda’s recollections“. You also said,”There are infinitely many others, among which “Francis’ Mind”, made of “Francis’ recollections”… Are you implying that Francis’ mind is also an illusion, and that it contains no recollections other than the personal recollections of Francis? This leads to my main question, which is, why are minds personal and different from each other? Is there some answer other than that God wants it that way? If not, this is the same answer that the Church gave to all such questions of why? before science was liberated from it in the 17th century.

Dear Stanley,

You asked two questions:

1. “Are you implying that Francis’ mind is also an illusion, and that it contains no recollections other than the personal recollections of Francis?”

Yes. Francis’ mind doesn’t exist, because Francis only has the experience of consciousness and of its perceptions, the substance of which is this very same consciousness. Therefore Francis only experiences consciousness and it (not he) doesn’t have the experience of Francis’ mind. And if Francis doesn’t, nobody does. As a corollary, since this mind doesn’t exist, it cannot really contain anything.

2. “Why are minds personal and different from each other? Is there some answer other than that God wants it that way? If not, this is the same answer that the Church gave to all such questions of why? before science was liberated from it in the 17th century.”

I agree with you that the various churches haven’t done a good job in answering the questions “why?”. What concerns me is that you make it sound as if Science had done a better job. Can you tell me whether Physics answers the questions “why is there energy? why does light travel at the (ubiquitous and ridiculous) value of 300000km/s in the void? why has the Planck constant the (equally ridiculous and ubiquitous) value of 6.626068 × 10m kg/s?” I am not sure that even Einstein wouldn’t have given almost the same answer as the church: “Because God wants it that way, since he/she/it doesn’t play dice”. The truth is that even if Science could attribute a cause C1 to an effect E, therefore seemingly answering the question “Why E?”, the next question would be “but why C1 then? - because of C2” etc…the buck keeps getting passed on to the next cause, unless it reaches God, that which is its own cause (Spinoza’s definition of God), where all bucks stop. I love Science to much not to recognize that it is beautiful and interesting and that it does a good job in answering some of the questions “how?”, questions such as “how is the trajectory of a photon traveling in the vicinity of a big star going to be affected by the local gravity field?”, “where can I find Mars in the sky tomorrow at 10pm?” or “what are the various possible energy levels of the electron in the Hydrogen atom?”

Let’s go back to your main question, “Why are minds personal and different from each other?”. You posit first the real existence of personal minds and then ask why they are personal. Unless you prove experientially their existence, the question is similar to “why do unicorns have only one horn?” Minds are like the clothes of the naked emperor: everybody seems to agree on their existence, however nobody has ever seen one. And I am the trouble maker saying aloud “the Emperor is naked!”

And the naked truth is: there is only one Reality, and it is that which we perceive, and it is that which perceives, and it is God.

Love,

Francis